If humiliation of Germany, now a hundred years ago, at the end of the Great War, later dubbed WW I, really led to the rise of German Fascism and WW II, then why did Germany’s total loss at WW II not lead to WW III?
Rather, what led to WW II was the same German aggressiveness that led to WW I. It needed two defeats to bring out humility in the German Nation.
Maybe we can better understand Germany’s defeat, in the framework of the global decolonization that had started. Nations could not so easily dominate other nations anymore. Peoples wanted to be free.
Creation of the State of Israel was helped by the fact that no Western Nation wanted to absorb the survivors of the Holocaust. This is such coldness that we cannot understand it. That only started to show cracks at the influx of Syrian refugees.
But the Jewish State was already in the making for over half a Century when WW II ended. Zionism was well-underway to recreate a Jewish Homeland, and the Holocaust or its aftermath had little to do with it.
Maybe we can better understand Israel’s birth, in the framework of the global decolonization that had started. Nations could not so easily dominate other nations anymore. Peoples wanted to be free.
Arab Palestinian leaders, largely supported by their powerless subjects, didn’t want Jews around. They rejected their statehood as one of the very few Peoples, but not because they didn’t want independence but because they wanted it instead of the Jews. Because that intolerance is based on hatred, there will be no improvement until they are defeated like Hitler Germany. This parallel is so straight-forward, simple and clear that one really has to twist and turn not to see it like that.
So many people rejecting all of the above still doesn’t prove them right.